Polity Special MCQ with explanations- UPSC Prelims2017

Q1 Consider the following statements.

  1. (A): Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.

  2. (R): Preamble is not considered as a part of the constitution.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Correct Answer : D


  • The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
  • As per the SC, the Preamble can be amended under A368, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’.
  • The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words-Socialist, Secular and Integrity-to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.


Q2. Consider the following statements about the Act of 1909 which is also known as MorleyMinto Reforms.

  1. It introduced a system of communal representation.
  2. It provided for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
  3. It curtailed the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at the provincial level but increased the same at Central level.
  4. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by separating the central and provincial subjects.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : A


Statement 1: It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate.

Statement 2: Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council. He was appointed as the law member.

Statement 3: It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.

Statement 4: This was done in the Act of 1919.


Q3. As per the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Governor-general of India was to be

a) Elected by the first Constituent Assembly or Central Legislative Assembly of India.

b) Appointed by the Viceroy on the advice of the executive council.

c) Appointed by the British Monarch on the advice of the dominion cabinet.

d) Nominated by the dominion cabinet based on the recommendation of the Viceroy.

Correct Answer : C


  • The Act abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
  • His Majesty’s Government in Britain was to have no responsibility with respect to the Government of India or Pakistan.
  • It also abolished the office of the secretary of state for India and transferred his functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.


Q4. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. As per the Plan

  1. Each province and princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
  2. Princely states could veto the resolutions passed in the Constituent assembly.
  3. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
  4. Community based representation was to be abolished in the constituent assembly.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer : A


Statement 1: Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million population.

Statement 2: There was no such provision. In fact, the 93 seats allotted to the princely states were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly.

Statement 3: The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

Statement 4: Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.


Q5. Which of the following was/were committees associated with the Constituent Assembly of India?

  1. Welfare State Ideals committee
  2. A States Committee for Negotiating with the States
  3. A provincial Constitution Committee

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer : D


  • The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution making.
  • Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees. The names of these committees and their chairmen are given below:
  • Major Committees:
    • Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
    • Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    • Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas- Sardar Patel.
    • Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad


Q6. Which of the following erstwhile provinces had the largest membership in the Constituent Assembly of India?

a) United Provinces

b) Madras

c) West Bengal

d) Bombay

Correct Answer : A


  • Both the Indian provinces and Princely states were the members of constituent assembly of India.
  • Former taken together were greater in number than the princely states.
  • United Provinces had 55 members, Madras had 49, West Bengal 19 and Bombay 21.
  • Out of all princely states, Travancore had the highest membership of 6. Othe princely states had 1-4 members in the constituent assembly of India.


Q7. Consider the following about the federal structure of India.

  1. The Indian federal structure is the result of an agreement between the states.
  2. All states have a legitimate right to secede from the federation by legislative means.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Correct Answer : D


  • The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
  • Article 1 describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
  • This implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation. So, a secessionist movement by say the state of Nagaland is not legitimate and constitutional.

Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.

Hence, the Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’


Q8. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. Which of the following is/are the major features of parliamentary government in India?

  1. Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament
  2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature and Judiciary
  3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
  4. Presence of nominal and real executives
  5. Resolution of all Parliamentary disputes by the Judiciary

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 3 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer : B


Statement 1: The Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body even though it is based on British Parliamentary model where the Parliament is sovereign.

Statement 2: The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs and the collective responsibility of the latter to the former. It is not accountable to the Judiciary. Judiciary only reviews the actions of the executive when challenged.

Statement 3: Ministers are mostly chosen from the legislature. They act as the members of the particular house.

Statement 4: President and Governor are nominal executives, whereas the PM and CMs are real executives wielding de facto powers.

Statement 5: The Chairman of the house resolves all major disputes within the Parliament including the charges of political defection under anti-defection law.

However, in some cases like investigation of scams and election related disputes, Judiciary resolves the disputes.


Q9. What do you understand by the statement, “The Directive principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the constitution are non-justiciable in nature”?

a) The courts cannot recognize the DPSP in their judgments.

b) DPSP cannot be enforced by law.

c) They are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.

d) All of (a), (b) and (c)

Correct Answer : C 


  • Option (a): They do recognize. For e.g. certain laws that violate Article 14 of the constitution can be declared legitimate if they fulfil DPSP under parts of Article 39. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles’.
  • Option (b): DPSP like organizing village panchayats, cheap legal remedies for the poor have already been implemented by law.
  • Option (c): For e.g. if adequate steps are not taken to stop circulation of intoxicants like liquors (a DPSP), the courts cannot dictate the government to do so.


Q10. The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer : D


Statement 1: The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.

Statement 2: The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44 of DPSP).

Statement 3: Article 51A mentions this as one of the fundamental duties: “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.”

Statement 4: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15). All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25)



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